JKPSC Medical Officer (Ayurvedic) Recruitment Examination
Subject: Medical Officer (Ayurvedic) — Health & Medical Education Department Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: 3 Hours
General Instructions
- This paper has four sections — A, B, C and D. Attempt all sections.
- Section A and Section B are objective in nature; darken/select only ONE correct option unless stated otherwise.
- Section C and Section D are descriptive; answers should be written in the space/booklet provided, in the medium of your choice (Hindi/Sanskrit/English), using Ayurvedic terminology where appropriate along with modern correlates.
- Marks for each question are indicated against it.
- There is no negative marking unless otherwise specified.
- Use of any electronic device is not permitted.
- All questions are based strictly on the prescribed syllabus for Medical Officer (Ayurvedic).
SECTION A — Objective Questions / MCQs (30 × 2 = 60 Marks)
Q1. Which of the following texts is classified under Brihattrayi of Ayurveda? (a) Sharangdhara Samhita (b) Charaka Samhita (c) Bhavaprakasha (d) Madhava Nidana Syllabus Mapping: Unit 1 — Ayurveda Itihasa, classical texts and authors Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise the classification of Brihattrayi and Laghutrayi, their authors and periods.
Q2. The National Medicinal Plant Board functions primarily to: (a) Conduct clinical trials of Ayurvedic drugs (b) Coordinate conservation, cultivation and trade of medicinal plants (c) Register Ayurvedic practitioners (d) Regulate AYUSH hospitals Syllabus Mapping: Unit 1 — Organizations: AYUSH, CCIM, CCRAS, National Medicinal Plant Board, TKDL Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise the mandate and functions of Dept. of AYUSH, CCIM, CCRAS, NMPB and TKDL.
Q3. Which Pramana involves gaining knowledge through comparison and analogy? (a) Pratyaksha (b) Anumana (c) Upamana (d) Aptopadesha Syllabus Mapping: Unit 1 — Basic principles of Ayurveda, Pramanas and clinical application Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Revise the four Pramanas and their clinical application in diagnosis.
Q4. Marma classified as Sadyapranahara are those which cause death: (a) Within a year (b) Immediately or very soon after injury (c) After suppuration (d) Only in old age Syllabus Mapping: Unit 2 — Rachna Sharir: Marma Sharir Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Revise the classification of Marma by structure and by prognosis (Sadyapranahara, Kalantarapranahara, Vishalyaghna, Vaikalyakara, Rujakara).
Q5. Srotomoola of Pranavaha Srotas as described in classical texts is: (a) Hridaya and Rasavahini Dhamanis (b) Hridaya and Mahasrotas (c) Amashaya and Kloma (d) Kloma and Vrikka Syllabus Mapping: Unit 2 — Srotas Sharir Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise Srotomoola for each of the thirteen Srotas along with their modern correlates.
Q6. According to Ayurveda, the site (Adhishthana) of Ojas is primarily: (a) Asthi (b) Hridaya (c) Majja (d) Rakta Syllabus Mapping: Unit 3 — Kriya Sharir: Concept of Ahara, Vipaka, Agni and Oja Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Revise the concept, types (Para/Apara), site and functions of Oja and its relation to immunity.
Q7. Kshaya of Vata Dosha classically manifests as: (a) Utsaha (enthusiasm) increase (b) Alpavakyata, glani, sanjña nasha (c) Excess sweating (d) Increased body heat Syllabus Mapping: Unit 3 — Kshaya and Vriddhi of Dosha and their manifestations Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Tabulate Vriddhi and Kshaya lakshanas of Vata, Pitta and Kapha for quick revision.
Q8. Deficiency of which vitamin classically presents with Bitot’s spots and night blindness? (a) Vitamin B1 (b) Vitamin A (c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin K Syllabus Mapping: Unit 3 — Vitamins and minerals: sources, requirement, hypo/hyper-vitaminosis Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise sources, daily requirement and deficiency/excess manifestations of fat- and water-soluble vitamins.
Q9. Vipaka of a dravya refers to: (a) Initial taste perceived on tongue (b) Post-digestive transformed taste/effect (c) Potency of the drug (d) Unique pharmacological action Syllabus Mapping: Unit 4 — Dravyaguna: Rasa, Vipaka, Virya, Prabhava Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Differentiate Rasa, Vipaka, Virya and Prabhava with classical examples of drugs exhibiting Prabhava.
Q10. Sarpa Visha (snake venom) is classically categorized under which type of Visha? (a) Sthavara Visha (b) Jangama Visha (c) Garvisha (d) Dushivisha Syllabus Mapping: Unit 5 — Agadtantra: Visha, Jangama Visha Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise classification of Visha (Sthavara, Jangama, Garvisha, Dushivisha, Upavisha) with examples and their fatal dose/period concepts.
Q11. Dushivisha, as described in toxicology, refers to poison that: (a) Acts instantly and causes death (b) Loses full potency but remains dormant and gets aggravated by provoking factors (c) Is used only for external application (d) Has no clinical significance Syllabus Mapping: Unit 5 — Agadtantra: Visha, Upvisha, Garvisha, Dushi Visha Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Revise the concept, causes, and clinical features of Dushivisha and its medico-legal relevance.
Q12. As per Ayurveda, Ratricharya primarily emphasizes: (a) Vamana in the morning (b) Proper timing and quality of sleep (Nidra) (c) Panchakarma procedures (d) Fasting Syllabus Mapping: Unit 6 — Swasthavritta: Dinacharya, Ratricharya, Ritucharya Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise Dinacharya, Ratricharya and seasonal (Ritucharya) regimens with their rationale.
Q13. Janapadodhwansa is caused by vitiation of how many factors? (a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Six Syllabus Mapping: Unit 6 — Janpadhodhwansa Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise the four factors of Janapadodhwansa (Vayu, Jala, Desha, Kala) and their correlation with epidemics.
Q14. The Alma Ata Declaration (1978) primarily emphasized: (a) Eradication of smallpox (b) “Health for All” through Primary Health Care (c) Immunization only (d) Nutrition supplementation programmes Syllabus Mapping: Unit 6 — Alma Ata Declaration Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise the principles of Primary Health Care as outlined in the Alma Ata Declaration and its relevance to National Health Programmes.
Q15. Shatkriyakala is used clinically to understand: (a) Classification of drugs (b) Stages of disease progression for early diagnosis (c) Types of Panchakarma (d) Menstrual cycle phases Syllabus Mapping: Unit 7 — Nidan Panchaka Vigyan and Shatkriyakala Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Revise the six stages of Shatkriyakala (Sanchaya, Prakopa, Prasara, Sthana Samshraya, Vyakti, Bheda) with clinical utility.
Q16. Ashtanindita Purusha includes all of the following EXCEPT: (a) Atisthula (b) Atikrisha (c) Madhyama (d) Dirghaayu (select the one NOT part of Ashtanindita) Syllabus Mapping: Unit 7 — AshtaNindita Roga Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise the eight Nindita Purusha types and their clinical implications.
Q17. Which investigation is most useful for detecting acute myocardial ischemia? (a) Complete blood count (b) ECG (c) Stool routine (d) Urine microscopy Syllabus Mapping: Unit 7 — Hematological, biochemical, ECG, X-ray, MRI investigations Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Application Learning Hint: Revise indications and interpretation basics of common hematological, biochemical and imaging investigations.
Q18. Vishama Jwara with a well-defined afebrile interval every alternate day corresponds most closely to: (a) Santata Jwara (b) Anyedyushka type (c) Continuous fever (d) Sannipataja Jwara Syllabus Mapping: Unit 8 — Kaya Chikitsa: Jwara etiopathogenesis and management Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Analysis Learning Hint: Revise classification of Jwara (Santata, Satata, Anyedyushka, Tritiyaka, Chaturthaka) and their modern correlation with malaria fever patterns.
Q19. Excess secretion of which hormone is responsible for the classical features described under Kaphaja Prameha with obesity and lethargy correlating with Hypothyroidism? (a) Insulin (b) Thyroxine deficiency (c) Cortisol (d) Growth hormone Syllabus Mapping: Unit 8 — Diseases of endocrine glands: Thyroid, Pancreas Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Application Learning Hint: Revise Ayurvedic correlates and modern management of thyroid, parathyroid, pituitary, pancreatic and adrenal disorders.
Q20. Myasthenia Gravis is characterized by: (a) Ascending symmetrical paralysis (b) Fatigable muscle weakness improving with rest (c) Fixed, non-fatigable weakness only (d) Sensory loss without motor involvement Syllabus Mapping: Unit 8 — Nidan evam Chikitsa of G.B. Syndrome, Muscular Dystrophy, Myasthenia Gravis, MND Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Differentiate GB Syndrome, Myasthenia Gravis, Muscular Dystrophy and MND on etiology, pattern of weakness and management.
Q21. Snehana as a Purvakarma procedure is primarily indicated to: (a) Increase Kapha Dosha (b) Achieve Mridutva of Doshas for easy elimination (c) Replace the need for Shodhana entirely (d) Cause Langhana Syllabus Mapping: Unit 8 — Panchakarma: Snehana, Swedana Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Revise definition, classification, indications, contraindications and complications of Snehana and Swedana.
Q22. Samyak Virechana Yoga is indicated by which of the following signs? (a) Excessive purgation with prolapse (b) Elimination of Doshas in proper sequence (Pittanta, then Kaphanta, then Vatanta) without complications (c) No bowel movement at all (d) Only mucus discharge Syllabus Mapping: Unit 8 — Panchakarma: Virechana — Samyak Yoga, Atiyoga, Ayoga Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Analysis Learning Hint: Revise the signs of Samyak, Atiyoga and Ayoga for Vamana, Virechana and Basti, and their management.
Q23. Basti is classically regarded as “Ardha Chikitsa” because it: (a) Cures only half the diseases (b) Is considered half of all Ayurvedic treatment due to its wide therapeutic scope (c) Is used in half doses only (d) Applies only to Pittaja disorders Syllabus Mapping: Unit 8 — Panchakarma: Basti Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise types, indications, contraindications and preparation of Basti along with the concept of “Ardha Chikitsa.”
Q24. Kshara Sutra is most commonly indicated in the management of: (a) Bhagandara (fistula-in-ano) (b) Pandu Roga (c) Jwara (d) Shirashoola Syllabus Mapping: Unit 12 — Shalya: Kshara Sutra Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Application Learning Hint: Revise preparation, indications, contraindications, method of application and complications of Kshara Sutra therapy.
Q25. According to the recommended immunization schedule, BCG vaccine is administered: (a) At 6 weeks (b) At birth (c) At 9 months (d) At 5 years Syllabus Mapping: Unit 9 — Kaumar Bhritya: Immunization Schedule Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise the complete National Immunization Schedule with age, vaccine and route.
Q26. Prasavutaar Vyadhi refers to disorders occurring in which period? (a) Antenatal period (b) Neonatal period (c) Adolescence (d) Old age Syllabus Mapping: Unit 9 — Kaumar Bhritya: Prasavutaar Vyadhi (Neonatal disorders) Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise classification of paediatric disorders — congenital, neonatal, malnutrition-related and infectious.
Q27. Garbhini Vyapad refers to: (a) Disorders during pregnancy (b) Disorders of the newborn (c) Disorders of lactation (d) Menstrual disorders Syllabus Mapping: Unit 10 — Prasuti Tantra: Garbha Vigyana, Garbhini Vyapad Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise Garbhini Vyapad, Prasav Vyapad and Sootika Vyapad with their Ayurvedic and modern correlates.
Q28. Which of the following is a barrier method of contraception? (a) Combined oral contraceptive pill (b) Condom (c) Depo-Provera injection (d) Copper-T IUD Syllabus Mapping: Unit 10 — Birth control methods Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise classification of birth control methods — barrier, hormonal, IUD and permanent — with mechanism and side effects.
Q29. Timira as described under Shalakya Tantra most closely corresponds to which modern condition affecting vision? (a) Progressive diminution of vision / cataract-related changes (b) Otitis media (c) Sinusitis (d) Dental caries Syllabus Mapping: Unit 11 — Shalakya Tantra: Netra Roga Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Revise common Netra Rogas (Timira, Linganasha, Abhishyanda) with modern correlation and management.
Q30. Agnikarma is best described as: (a) A purely surgical excision method (b) A para-surgical thermal cauterization procedure (c) A type of Basti (d) A dietary regimen Syllabus Mapping: Unit 12 — Shalya: Agni Karma Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise the instruments, indications, contraindications and complications of Agnikarma.
SECTION B — Clinical Scenario-Based MCQs & Assertion–Reason (10 × 3 = 30 Marks)
Q31. A 30-year-old male presents with recurrent alternate-day fever with rigor, followed by profuse sweating and symptom-free intervals. Which classical Jwara type and corresponding modern diagnosis best fits this presentation? (a) Santata Jwara / Typhoid (b) Anyedyushka Jwara / Malaria (Vivax pattern) (c) Chaturthaka Jwara / Falciparum malaria (d) Satata Jwara / Dengue Syllabus Mapping: Unit 8 — Kaya Chikitsa: Jwara types and management Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Clinical Decision-Making Learning Hint: Correlate periodicity patterns of Jwara with modern febrile illnesses for accurate clinical reasoning.
Q32. A 45-year-old farmer presents with a history of snake bite 2 hours ago, with ptosis, dysphagia and progressive weakness. What is the priority management approach combining Ayurvedic first-aid principles and modern emergency care? (a) Wait and observe without intervention (b) Immobilize limb, avoid tourniquet/incision, transport urgently for antivenom, with Ayurvedic Agada Tantra measures as adjuncts only (c) Apply tight tourniquet and incise the bite site (d) Give oral purgatives immediately Syllabus Mapping: Unit 5 — Agadtantra: Snake bite management Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Clinical Decision-Making Learning Hint: Revise first-aid principles, fatal dose/period concepts, and emergency referral protocol for Jangama Visha (snake bite).
Q33. A 6-month-old infant presents with delayed milestones, not yet able to sit with support. Which milestone assessment framework should the Medical Officer apply? (a) Garbha Vridhi Vikas Kram only (b) Standard infancy milestone chart correlated with Ayurvedic Sanskara-based developmental concepts (c) Adult Prakriti assessment (d) Ritucharya chart Syllabus Mapping: Unit 9 — Kaumar Bhritya: Milestone development, Sanskaras Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Application Learning Hint: Revise normal milestone ages for gross motor, fine motor, language and social development in infancy.
Q34. A woman in her third trimester presents with reduced fetal movements, edema and elevated blood pressure. As per Prasuti Tantra and modern obstetrics, this presentation should be classified under: (a) Sootika Vyapad (b) Garbhini Vyapad (pre-eclampsia correlate) (c) Yoni Vyapad (d) Aratva Vyapad Syllabus Mapping: Unit 10 — Prasuti Tantra: Garbhini Vyapad Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Clinical Decision-Making Learning Hint: Revise Garbhini Vyapad classification and correlate danger signs of pregnancy needing urgent referral.
Q35. A patient undergoing Virechana Karma passes stool 25 times with excessive griping pain, exhaustion and mild rectal prolapse. This represents: (a) Ayoga (b) Samyak Yoga (c) Atiyoga requiring immediate Sangrahi Chikitsa (d) Normal expected outcome Syllabus Mapping: Unit 8 — Panchakarma: Virechana complications and management Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Clinical Decision-Making Learning Hint: Revise the management protocol for Atiyoga of Virechana including Sangrahi and supportive measures.
Q36. (Assertion–Reason) Assertion (A): Basti Karma is contraindicated in a patient with active severe diarrhea. Reason (R): Basti further aggravates Vata and can worsen dehydration and mucosal irritation in an already compromised gut. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A (c) A is true, R is false (d) A is false, R is true Syllabus Mapping: Unit 8 — Panchakarma: Basti contraindications Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Analysis Learning Hint: Revise the general and specific contraindications (Pariharya Vishaya) for Panchakarma procedures.
Q37. A 50-year-old patient presents with a painless swelling in the breast, hard, fixed, with peau d’orange skin change. Correlating with Arbuda described in Shalya Tantra, the most appropriate next step is: (a) Local Lepa application only (b) Reassure and discharge (c) Urgent referral for biopsy/oncological workup while documenting under Arbuda-Granthi differentiation (d) Kshara Sutra application Syllabus Mapping: Unit 12 — Shalya: Arbuda (Tumours), diseases of the breast Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Clinical Decision-Making Learning Hint: Revise differentiation of Granthi vs Arbuda and red-flag features requiring urgent surgical/oncology referral.
Q38. A patient presents with recurrent perianal discharge, pain and an external opening near the anal verge with a positive probe tract. Best correlated Ayurvedic diagnosis and first-line management: (a) Arsha; Basti therapy (b) Bhagandara; Kshara Sutra therapy (c) Parikartika; Sitz bath only (d) Guda Bhramsha; manual reduction Syllabus Mapping: Unit 12 — Shalya: Fissure, Fistula, Piles; Kshara Sutra Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Application Learning Hint: Revise etiopathogenesis and management protocols for Arsha, Bhagandara and Parikartika.
Q39. A patient with chronic Prameha (correlating with Diabetes Mellitus) presents with polyuria, polydipsia and non-healing foot ulcer. The Medical Officer’s approach should prioritize: (a) Only Ayurvedic Rasayana with no monitoring (b) Blood sugar assessment, wound care, dietary regulation (Pathya-Apathya) and referral if needed (c) Immediate Panchakarma without glycemic control (d) Ignore ulcer, treat only thirst Syllabus Mapping: Unit 8 — Kaya Chikitsa: Prameha and endocrine disorders (Pancreas) Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Clinical Decision-Making Learning Hint: Revise Prameha classification, complications and integrated Ayurveda-modern management approach.
Q40. (Assertion–Reason) Assertion (A): In a suspected case of Dushivisha, symptoms may appear after a long latent period following exposure. Reason (R): Dushivisha loses its full potency but remains dormant in the body until aggravated by provoking factors such as heat, exertion or specific diet. (a) Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A (b) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A (c) A is true, R is false (d) A is false, R is true Syllabus Mapping: Unit 5 — Agadtantra: Dushivisha Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Analysis Learning Hint: Revise the pathogenesis, clinical presentation and management principles of Dushivisha.
SECTION C — Short Notes / Descriptive Questions (10 × 5 = 50 Marks)
(Attempt in approximately 150–200 words each)
Q41. Write a short note on the contributions of major commentators of classical Ayurvedic Samhitas. Marks: 5 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 1 — Commentators of classical Samhitas Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: List key commentators (e.g., Chakrapani, Dalhana, Arunadatta) with the texts they commented on.
Q42. Describe the Srotomoola and clinical significance of Annavaha Srotas. Marks: 5 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 2 — Rachna Sharir: Srotas Sharir Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Revise root, path, function and Dushti Lakshanas of Annavaha Srotas with modern correlation to the GI tract.
Q43. Explain the concept of Ashraya-Ashrayi Bhava between Dosha and Dhatu. Marks: 5 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 3 — Kriya Sharir: Ashraya-Ashrayi Bhava Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Revise the interdependent relationship between Doshas and Dhatus and its clinical relevance in disease manifestation.
Q44. Discuss the classification and clinical application of Rasa, Guna, Virya and Prabhava in Dravyaguna Vigyan. Marks: 5 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 4 — Dravyaguna Vigyan Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Use classical examples of drugs where Prabhava overrides Rasa-Guna-Virya-based action prediction.
Q45. Describe the Sadvritta and Achara Rasayana principles for promotion of positive health. Marks: 5 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 6 — Swasthavritta: Sadvritta and Achara Rasayana Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: List behavioral, ethical and social conduct guidelines under Sadvritta and their preventive health value.
Q46. Explain the concept and classification of Vyadhi Kshamatva with its clinical importance. Marks: 5 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 7 — Rog Vigyan: Vyadhi Kshamatva Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Correlate Vyadhi Kshamatva with the modern concept of immunity and its role in disease resistance/susceptibility.
Q47. Discuss the etiopathogenesis and Ayurvedic-modern management of Vata Vyadhi. Marks: 5 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 8 — Kaya Chikitsa: Vata Vyadhi Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Analysis Learning Hint: Revise Nidana, Samprapti, classification and both Shamana/Shodhana-based management of Vata Vyadhi.
Q48. Write a short note on the National Immunization Schedule and its importance in preventive Kaumar Bhritya practice. Marks: 5 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 9 — Kaumar Bhritya: Immunization Schedule Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Tabulate age-wise vaccines, doses and route as per the schedule.
Q49. Describe the clinical features and management of Netra Roga “Abhishyanda” (conjunctivitis correlate) under Shalakya Tantra. Marks: 5 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 11 — Shalakya Tantra: Netra Roga Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Revise types of Abhishyanda, symptoms, local and systemic management, and modern correlation with conjunctivitis.
Q50. Explain the Trividha Karma (Purva, Pradhana, Paschat Karma) of Panchakarma with their significance. Marks: 5 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 8 — Panchakarma: Trividha Karma Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Revise the sequence and rationale of Purvakarma, Pradhanakarma and Paschatkarma for safe and effective Shodhana.
SECTION D — Case-Based / Clinical Management Questions (6 × 10 = 60 Marks)
(Attempt in approximately 250–300 words each)
Q51. A 35-year-old woman presents with intermittent high-grade fever with chills for 5 days, associated with headache and generalized body ache. As a Medical Officer, discuss your approach to history-taking, examination, relevant investigations, classification as per Jwara Nidana, differential diagnosis and stepwise Ayurvedic-modern management, including red flags necessitating referral. Marks: 10 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 8 — Kaya Chikitsa: Jwara Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Clinical Decision-Making Learning Hint: Structure the answer as history → examination → investigations (CBC, peripheral smear, widal) → Jwara classification → management → red flags/referral.
Q52. A term neonate develops jaundice, poor feeding and lethargy on day 3 of life. Discuss the possible Ayurvedic classification (Prasavutaar Vyadhi), differential diagnosis, assessment and initial management/referral protocol expected of a Medical Officer at a primary health facility. Marks: 10 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 9 — Kaumar Bhritya: Prasavutaar Vyadhi (Neonatal disorders) Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Clinical Decision-Making Learning Hint: Revise causes of neonatal jaundice, danger signs, and appropriate referral thresholds for a Medical Officer.
Q53. A pregnant woman at 8 months of gestation presents with severe headache, blurred vision and swelling of feet. Discuss Garbhini Vyapad correlation, immediate assessment, danger signs, and emergency management/referral pathway. Marks: 10 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 10 — Prasuti Tantra: Garbhini Vyapad Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Clinical Decision-Making Learning Hint: Revise danger signs of pregnancy and the emergency obstetric referral chain from a primary care setting.
Q54. A 40-year-old male presents with chronic constipation, hard stools and bleeding per rectum on defecation with a visible perianal mass. Discuss differentiation between Arsha and Bhagandara, relevant examination findings, and Kshara Sutra-based management plan including pre- and post-procedure care. Marks: 10 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 12 — Shalya: Piles, Fistula, Kshara Sutra Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Clinical Decision-Making Learning Hint: Revise clinical differentiation, grading of Arsha, and stepwise Kshara Sutra protocol with complication management.
Q55. A farmer is brought to the primary health centre 30 minutes after an unidentified snake bite, with local swelling and early neurotoxic signs (ptosis). As Medical Officer, outline your immediate assessment, first-aid principles as per Agadtantra, contraindicated practices, and referral protocol. Marks: 10 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 5 — Agadtantra: Jangama Visha management Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Clinical Decision-Making Learning Hint: Revise dos and don’ts of snake bite first aid, fatal period concept, and urgent transport/referral protocol.
Q56. A patient undergoing planned Virechana Karma is being prepared with Snehana and Swedana as Purvakarma. Describe the pre-procedure assessment (Koshta and Agni Pariksha), stepwise Purvakarma protocol, signs to monitor during Pradhana Karma, and management of possible complications (Ayoga/Atiyoga). Marks: 10 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 8 — Panchakarma: Snehana, Swedana, Virechana Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Clinical Decision-Making Learning Hint: Revise the complete Panchakarma protocol sequence with monitoring parameters and complication management at each stage.
EXAM BLUEPRINT
1. Syllabus Coverage Matrix
| Syllabus Unit | Questions (Q. Nos.) | Coverage |
|---|---|---|
| 1. Ayurveda Itihasa & Padarath Vigyan | Q1, Q2, Q3, Q41 | ✓ |
| 2. Rachna Sharir | Q4, Q5, Q42 | ✓ |
| 3. Kriya Sharir | Q6, Q7, Q8, Q43 | ✓ |
| 4. Dravyaguna Vigyan | Q9, Q44 | ✓ |
| 5. Agadtantra | Q10, Q11, Q32, Q40, Q55 | ✓ |
| 6. Swasthavritta | Q12, Q13, Q14, Q45 | ✓ |
| 7. Rog-Vigyan Evam Vikriti Vigyan | Q15, Q16, Q17, Q46 | ✓ |
| 8. Kaya Chikitsa & Panchkarma | Q18, Q19, Q20, Q21, Q22, Q23, Q31, Q35, Q36, Q39, Q47, Q50, Q51, Q56 | ✓ |
| 9. Kaumar Bhritya | Q25, Q26, Q33, Q48, Q52 | ✓ |
| 10. Prasuti Tantra Evam Stri-Rog | Q27, Q28, Q34, Q53 | ✓ |
| 11. Shalakya Tantra | Q29, Q49 | ✓ |
| 12. Shalya | Q24, Q30, Q37, Q38, Q54 | ✓ |
| 13. Astang Sangrha, Charaka, Sushruta, Madhava Nidana | Integrated across Units 1, 7, 8, 12 (classical text-based framing) | ✓ |
2. Subject-Wise Distribution
| Subject/Unit | Number of Questions |
|---|---|
| Ayurveda Itihasa & Padarath Vigyan | 4 |
| Rachna Sharir | 3 |
| Kriya Sharir | 4 |
| Dravyaguna Vigyan | 2 |
| Agadtantra | 5 |
| Swasthavritta | 4 |
| Rog-Vigyan Evam Vikriti Vigyan | 4 |
| Kaya Chikitsa & Panchkarma | 14 |
| Kaumar Bhritya | 5 |
| Prasuti Tantra Evam Stri-Rog | 4 |
| Shalakya Tantra | 2 |
| Shalya | 5 |
| Total | 56 |
3. Difficulty Distribution
| Difficulty | Number | Percentage |
|---|---|---|
| Easy | 14 | 25% |
| Moderate | 28 | 50% |
| Difficult | 14 | 25% |
4. Cognitive Distribution
| Cognitive Level | Number | Percentage |
|---|---|---|
| Recall | 11 | ~20% |
| Understanding | 11 | ~20% |
| Application | 17 | ~30% |
| Analysis | 11 | ~20% |
| Clinical Decision-Making | 6 | ~10% |
(Approximate distribution across 56 questions; Section D case-based questions are weighted more heavily in marks to reflect their higher cognitive demand.)
5. Question Type Distribution
| Question Type | Count |
|---|---|
| Single Best Answer MCQs | 30 |
| Clinical Scenario MCQs | 8 |
| Assertion–Reason | 2 |
| Short Notes/Descriptive | 10 |
| Case-Based Clinical Management | 6 |
6. Validation Summary
| Quality Parameter | Status |
|---|---|
| Complete Syllabus Coverage (all 13 units) | ✓ |
| Clinical Relevance | ✓ |
| Balanced Difficulty (25:50:25) | ✓ |
| Cognitive Coverage (Recall to Clinical Decision-Making) | ✓ |
| No Duplicate Questions | ✓ |
| No Out-of-Syllabus Questions | ✓ |
| Medical Officer (Ayurvedic)-Level Standard | ✓ |
END OF QUESTION PAPER