Subject: Sociology (10+2 Lecturer) Maximum Marks: 100 Time Allowed: 3 Hours
General Instructions
This paper has four sections: A, B, C, and D.
Section A contains 10 Short Answer questions of 2 marks each (20 marks). Attempt all.
Section B contains 8 Medium Answer questions of 5 marks each (40 marks). Attempt all.
Section C contains 3 Long Answer questions of 10 marks each (30 marks). Attempt all.
Section D contains 2 Case-Based/Critical Analysis questions of 10 marks each; attempt any ONE (10 marks).
All questions are compulsory within their section unless stated otherwise.
Marks for each question are indicated against it.
Write answers in clear, well-organized language, supporting arguments with relevant sociological theories, thinkers, and examples wherever applicable.
SECTION A — Short Answer Questions (2 × 10 = 20 Marks)
A1. Define Sociology and briefly explain its nature and scope as an academic discipline.
Marks: 2
Syllabus Mapping: Unit I.1 – Sociology: Discipline and Perspectives (Definition, Nature and Scope)
Cognitive Level: Remember
Difficulty Level: Easy
Learning Hint: Revise definitions by early and modern sociologists, the subject matter of sociology, and its distinguishing features as a social science.
A2. Differentiate between status and role.
Marks: 2
Syllabus Mapping: Unit I.2 – Sociological Concepts (Status and Role)
Cognitive Level: Understand
Difficulty Level: Easy
Learning Hint: Revise ascribed vs. achieved status, role set, role conflict, and the interrelation between status and role in social structure.
A3. Explain Max Weber’s typology of social action.
Marks: 2
Syllabus Mapping: Unit II.1 – Classical Sociological Traditions (Max Weber: Theory of Social Action)
Cognitive Level: Understand
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Learning Hint: Revise the four types of social action — traditional, affectual, value-rational, and instrumental-rational.
A4. Illustrate, with suitable examples, the difference between probability and non-probability sampling techniques.
Marks: 2
Syllabus Mapping: Unit III.2 – Quantitative Methods and Survey Research (Sampling)
Cognitive Level: Apply
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Learning Hint: Revise types of probability sampling (simple random, stratified, systematic, cluster) and non-probability sampling (purposive, quota, snowball, convenience).
A5. Explain the concept of incest taboo in the study of kinship.
Marks: 2
Syllabus Mapping: Unit IV.1 – Kinship (Defining Kinship; Incest Taboo)
Cognitive Level: Understand
Difficulty Level: Easy
Learning Hint: Revise definitions of kinship, functions of incest taboo, and its relation to descent and marriage regulation.
A6. Illustrate, with suitable examples, the interrelationship between magic, religion and science.
Marks: 2
Syllabus Mapping: Unit V.1 – Introduction to Sociology of Religion (Magic, Religion and Science)
Cognitive Level: Apply
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Learning Hint: Revise distinctions and overlaps among magic, religion, and science as systems of belief and practice.
A7. Differentiate between Varna and Jati.
Marks: 2
Syllabus Mapping: Unit VII.3 – Caste and Class in India (Varna and Jati)
Cognitive Level: Understand
Difficulty Level: Easy
Learning Hint: Revise the ideological (Varna) versus empirical/regional (Jati) basis of caste classification.
A8. Illustrate the difference between urbanization and urbanism with examples from Indian cities.
Marks: 2
Syllabus Mapping: Unit IX.1 – Urban Sociology (Concept: Urban, Urbanization and Urbanism)
Cognitive Level: Apply
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Learning Hint: Revise urbanization as a demographic/spatial process versus urbanism as a way of life (Louis Wirth’s formulation).
A9. Explain patriarchy as ideology and practice.
Marks: 2
Syllabus Mapping: Unit XII.1 – Social Construction of Gender (Patriarchy as Ideology and Practice)
Cognitive Level: Understand
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Learning Hint: Revise how patriarchy operates both as a belief system and as institutionalized social practice across family, economy, and polity.
A10. Describe, with examples, the changing trends in family structure in contemporary society.
Marks: 2
Syllabus Mapping: Unit IV.2 – Family (Changing Trends of Family Structure)
Cognitive Level: Apply
Difficulty Level: Easy
Learning Hint: Revise shifts from joint to nuclear families, emerging family forms, and factors driving structural change.
SECTION B — Medium Answer Questions (5 × 8 = 40 Marks)
B1. Discuss Merton’s critique of functional analysis with reference to manifest and latent functions.
Marks: 5
Syllabus Mapping: Unit II.2 – Functionalism and Neo-Functionalism (R.K. Merton)
Cognitive Level: Apply
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Learning Hint: Revise Merton’s critique of the postulates of universal functionalism, functional unity, and indispensability, along with manifest/latent functions and dysfunctions.
B2. Examine Foucault’s conceptualization of discourse, knowledge and power.
Marks: 5
Syllabus Mapping: Unit II.4 – Structuralism and Post-Structuralism (Michael Foucault)
Cognitive Level: Analyse
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Learning Hint: Revise Foucault’s notions of discourse, power/knowledge nexus, disciplinary power, and their departure from classical structuralism.
B3. Compare and contrast the case study method and ethnography as qualitative research techniques.
Marks: 5
Syllabus Mapping: Unit III.3 – Qualitative Research Techniques (Case Study Method; Ethnography)
Cognitive Level: Analyse
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Learning Hint: Revise the scope, procedure, strengths, and limitations of case study and ethnographic methods, along with issues of validity and reliability.
B4. Analyse Andre Gunder Frank’s “Development of Underdevelopment” thesis.
Marks: 5
Syllabus Mapping: Unit VI.2 – Modernisation and Development (Development of Underdevelopment Thesis – G. Frank)
Cognitive Level: Analyse
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Learning Hint: Revise the core–periphery framework, dependency theory, and Frank’s critique of modernization theory.
B5. Compare the structural-functional and subaltern perspectives on the study of Indian society.
Learning Hint: Revise Srinivas’s and Dube’s structural-functional approach to village studies versus the subaltern focus on marginalized voices and counter-hegemonic history.
B6. Assess the role of the Panchayati Raj System in rural development in India.
Marks: 5
Syllabus Mapping: Unit VIII.2 – Rural Society and Change (Panchayati Raj System)
Cognitive Level: Evaluate
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Learning Hint: Revise the evolution, structure, and functions of Panchayati Raj institutions and their impact on rural planned change.
B7. Examine the relevance of relative deprivation theory in explaining any one social movement in India, with suitable illustration.
Marks: 5
Syllabus Mapping: Unit X.1/X.2 – Social Movements and Change (Relative Deprivation Theory); Social Movements in India
Cognitive Level: Apply
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Learning Hint: Revise the relative deprivation, conflict, and structural-strain perspectives, and match them against a specific Indian social movement (e.g., Tribal, Dalit, or Environmental).
B8. Analyse Giddens’ and Beck’s Risk Theory in the context of environmental sociology.
Marks: 5
Syllabus Mapping: Unit XI.2 – Theoretical Approaches (Giddens and Beck: Risk Theory)
Cognitive Level: Analyse
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Learning Hint: Revise the concept of “risk society,” reflexive modernization, and manufactured risks as distinct from natural hazards.
SECTION C — Long Answer Questions (10 × 3 = 30 Marks)
C1. Critically evaluate the contributions of Comte, Marx, Durkheim and Weber to the development of classical sociological theory.
Marks: 10
Syllabus Mapping: Unit II.1 – Classical Sociological Traditions
Cognitive Level: Evaluate
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Learning Hint: Revise the Law of Three Stages and Positivism (Comte), Historical/Dialectical Materialism and Alienation (Marx), Social Facts and Solidarity (Durkheim), and Social Action/Authority (Weber), along with comparative strengths and limitations of each framework.
C2. Critically examine the Indological, Structural-Functional, Marxian and Subaltern perspectives on the study of Indian society.
Learning Hint: Revise Ghurye/Dumont’s textual approach, Srinivas/Dube’s field-view approach, Mukherjee/Desai’s Marxian approach, and Guha/Ambedkar’s subaltern approach, comparing their assumptions and critiques.
C3. Critically analyse the major feminist perspectives — liberal, radical, socialist and postmodernist — and assess their relevance to understanding the status of women in contemporary India.
Marks: 10
Syllabus Mapping: Unit XII.2/XII.3 – Theoretical Feminist Perspectives; Women in India
Cognitive Level: Evaluate
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Learning Hint: Revise the core arguments of each feminist school, along with constitutional provisions, women’s empowerment initiatives, and contemporary gender issues in India.
SECTION D — Case-Based / Critical Analysis Questions (Attempt any ONE) (10 Marks)
D(a). Critically evaluate, with reference to a case of your choice, the perspectives of Phule, Ambedkar, Gandhi and Lohiya on the marginalization of disadvantaged communities in India, and assess the impact of constitutional provisions on such marginalized groups.
Marks: 10
Syllabus Mapping: Unit XIII – Marginalized Communities in India (Perspectives on Marginalization; Constitutional Provisions, Implementation and Impact)
Cognitive Level: Evaluate
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Learning Hint: Revise the distinct standpoints of Phule, Ambedkar, Gandhi and Lohiya on caste and marginalization, along with socio-economic indices of marginalization and relevant constitutional safeguards.
D(b). Design a critical sociological assessment of the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan as a sanitation intervention, examining its implications for scavenging castes and social deprivation.
Marks: 10
Syllabus Mapping: Unit XIV – Health and Sanitation (Scavenging Caste and Social Deprivation; Sanitation Policies in India — Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, Sulabh Sanitation Movement)
Cognitive Level: Create
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Learning Hint: Revise the sociology of health and sanitation, the social status of scavenging communities, and the objectives/critiques of Swachh Bharat Abhiyan and the Sulabh Sanitation Movement.
EXAM BLUEPRINT
1. Syllabus Coverage Matrix
Syllabus Unit
Questions
Coverage
I. Introduction to Sociology
A1, A2
✓
II. Sociological Thoughts and Theories
A3, B1, B2, C1
✓
III. Methodology of Social Research
A4, B3
✓
IV. Sociology of Family, Marriage and Kinship
A5, A10
✓
V. Sociology of Religion
A6
✓
VI. Sociology of Change and Development
B4
✓
VII. Indian Society: Structure and Change
A7, B5, C2
✓
VIII. Rural Society in India
B6
✓
IX. Urban Society in India
A8
✓
X. Social Movements in India
B7
✓
XI. Environment and Sustainable Development
B8
✓
XII. Gender and Society
A9, C3
✓
XIII. Marginalized Communities in India
D(a)
✓ (optional choice)
XIV. Health and Sanitation
D(b)
✓ (optional choice)
All 14 syllabus units are represented, with weightage proportionate to unit breadth (Units II and VII, the largest theoretical units, receive the highest representation).
JKPSC Medical Officer (Ayurvedic) Recruitment Examination
Subject: Medical Officer (Ayurvedic) — Health & Medical Education Department Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: 3 Hours
General Instructions
This paper has four sections — A, B, C and D. Attempt all sections.
Section A and Section B are objective in nature; darken/select only ONE correct option unless stated otherwise.
Section C and Section D are descriptive; answers should be written in the space/booklet provided, in the medium of your choice (Hindi/Sanskrit/English), using Ayurvedic terminology where appropriate along with modern correlates.
Marks for each question are indicated against it.
There is no negative marking unless otherwise specified.
Use of any electronic device is not permitted.
All questions are based strictly on the prescribed syllabus for Medical Officer (Ayurvedic).
Q1. Which of the following texts is classified under Brihattrayi of Ayurveda? (a) Sharangdhara Samhita (b) Charaka Samhita (c) Bhavaprakasha (d) Madhava Nidana Syllabus Mapping: Unit 1 — Ayurveda Itihasa, classical texts and authors Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise the classification of Brihattrayi and Laghutrayi, their authors and periods.
Q2. The National Medicinal Plant Board functions primarily to: (a) Conduct clinical trials of Ayurvedic drugs (b) Coordinate conservation, cultivation and trade of medicinal plants (c) Register Ayurvedic practitioners (d) Regulate AYUSH hospitals Syllabus Mapping: Unit 1 — Organizations: AYUSH, CCIM, CCRAS, National Medicinal Plant Board, TKDL Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise the mandate and functions of Dept. of AYUSH, CCIM, CCRAS, NMPB and TKDL.
Q3. Which Pramana involves gaining knowledge through comparison and analogy? (a) Pratyaksha (b) Anumana (c) Upamana (d) Aptopadesha Syllabus Mapping: Unit 1 — Basic principles of Ayurveda, Pramanas and clinical application Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Revise the four Pramanas and their clinical application in diagnosis.
Q4. Marma classified as Sadyapranahara are those which cause death: (a) Within a year (b) Immediately or very soon after injury (c) After suppuration (d) Only in old age Syllabus Mapping: Unit 2 — Rachna Sharir: Marma Sharir Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Revise the classification of Marma by structure and by prognosis (Sadyapranahara, Kalantarapranahara, Vishalyaghna, Vaikalyakara, Rujakara).
Q5. Srotomoola of Pranavaha Srotas as described in classical texts is: (a) Hridaya and Rasavahini Dhamanis (b) Hridaya and Mahasrotas (c) Amashaya and Kloma (d) Kloma and Vrikka Syllabus Mapping: Unit 2 — Srotas Sharir Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise Srotomoola for each of the thirteen Srotas along with their modern correlates.
Q6. According to Ayurveda, the site (Adhishthana) of Ojas is primarily: (a) Asthi (b) Hridaya (c) Majja (d) Rakta Syllabus Mapping: Unit 3 — Kriya Sharir: Concept of Ahara, Vipaka, Agni and Oja Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Revise the concept, types (Para/Apara), site and functions of Oja and its relation to immunity.
Q7. Kshaya of Vata Dosha classically manifests as: (a) Utsaha (enthusiasm) increase (b) Alpavakyata, glani, sanjña nasha (c) Excess sweating (d) Increased body heat Syllabus Mapping: Unit 3 — Kshaya and Vriddhi of Dosha and their manifestations Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Tabulate Vriddhi and Kshaya lakshanas of Vata, Pitta and Kapha for quick revision.
Q8. Deficiency of which vitamin classically presents with Bitot’s spots and night blindness? (a) Vitamin B1 (b) Vitamin A (c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin K Syllabus Mapping: Unit 3 — Vitamins and minerals: sources, requirement, hypo/hyper-vitaminosis Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise sources, daily requirement and deficiency/excess manifestations of fat- and water-soluble vitamins.
Q9. Vipaka of a dravya refers to: (a) Initial taste perceived on tongue (b) Post-digestive transformed taste/effect (c) Potency of the drug (d) Unique pharmacological action Syllabus Mapping: Unit 4 — Dravyaguna: Rasa, Vipaka, Virya, Prabhava Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Differentiate Rasa, Vipaka, Virya and Prabhava with classical examples of drugs exhibiting Prabhava.
Q10. Sarpa Visha (snake venom) is classically categorized under which type of Visha? (a) Sthavara Visha (b) Jangama Visha (c) Garvisha (d) Dushivisha Syllabus Mapping: Unit 5 — Agadtantra: Visha, Jangama Visha Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise classification of Visha (Sthavara, Jangama, Garvisha, Dushivisha, Upavisha) with examples and their fatal dose/period concepts.
Q11. Dushivisha, as described in toxicology, refers to poison that: (a) Acts instantly and causes death (b) Loses full potency but remains dormant and gets aggravated by provoking factors (c) Is used only for external application (d) Has no clinical significance Syllabus Mapping: Unit 5 — Agadtantra: Visha, Upvisha, Garvisha, Dushi Visha Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Revise the concept, causes, and clinical features of Dushivisha and its medico-legal relevance.
Q12. As per Ayurveda, Ratricharya primarily emphasizes: (a) Vamana in the morning (b) Proper timing and quality of sleep (Nidra) (c) Panchakarma procedures (d) Fasting Syllabus Mapping: Unit 6 — Swasthavritta: Dinacharya, Ratricharya, Ritucharya Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise Dinacharya, Ratricharya and seasonal (Ritucharya) regimens with their rationale.
Q13. Janapadodhwansa is caused by vitiation of how many factors? (a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Six Syllabus Mapping: Unit 6 — Janpadhodhwansa Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise the four factors of Janapadodhwansa (Vayu, Jala, Desha, Kala) and their correlation with epidemics.
Q14. The Alma Ata Declaration (1978) primarily emphasized: (a) Eradication of smallpox (b) “Health for All” through Primary Health Care (c) Immunization only (d) Nutrition supplementation programmes Syllabus Mapping: Unit 6 — Alma Ata Declaration Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise the principles of Primary Health Care as outlined in the Alma Ata Declaration and its relevance to National Health Programmes.
Q15. Shatkriyakala is used clinically to understand: (a) Classification of drugs (b) Stages of disease progression for early diagnosis (c) Types of Panchakarma (d) Menstrual cycle phases Syllabus Mapping: Unit 7 — Nidan Panchaka Vigyan and Shatkriyakala Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Revise the six stages of Shatkriyakala (Sanchaya, Prakopa, Prasara, Sthana Samshraya, Vyakti, Bheda) with clinical utility.
Q16. Ashtanindita Purusha includes all of the following EXCEPT: (a) Atisthula (b) Atikrisha (c) Madhyama (d) Dirghaayu (select the one NOT part of Ashtanindita) Syllabus Mapping: Unit 7 — AshtaNindita Roga Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise the eight Nindita Purusha types and their clinical implications.
Q17. Which investigation is most useful for detecting acute myocardial ischemia? (a) Complete blood count (b) ECG (c) Stool routine (d) Urine microscopy Syllabus Mapping: Unit 7 — Hematological, biochemical, ECG, X-ray, MRI investigations Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Application Learning Hint: Revise indications and interpretation basics of common hematological, biochemical and imaging investigations.
Q18. Vishama Jwara with a well-defined afebrile interval every alternate day corresponds most closely to: (a) Santata Jwara (b) Anyedyushka type (c) Continuous fever (d) Sannipataja Jwara Syllabus Mapping: Unit 8 — Kaya Chikitsa: Jwara etiopathogenesis and management Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Analysis Learning Hint: Revise classification of Jwara (Santata, Satata, Anyedyushka, Tritiyaka, Chaturthaka) and their modern correlation with malaria fever patterns.
Q19. Excess secretion of which hormone is responsible for the classical features described under Kaphaja Prameha with obesity and lethargy correlating with Hypothyroidism? (a) Insulin (b) Thyroxine deficiency (c) Cortisol (d) Growth hormone Syllabus Mapping: Unit 8 — Diseases of endocrine glands: Thyroid, Pancreas Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Application Learning Hint: Revise Ayurvedic correlates and modern management of thyroid, parathyroid, pituitary, pancreatic and adrenal disorders.
Q20. Myasthenia Gravis is characterized by: (a) Ascending symmetrical paralysis (b) Fatigable muscle weakness improving with rest (c) Fixed, non-fatigable weakness only (d) Sensory loss without motor involvement Syllabus Mapping: Unit 8 — Nidan evam Chikitsa of G.B. Syndrome, Muscular Dystrophy, Myasthenia Gravis, MND Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Differentiate GB Syndrome, Myasthenia Gravis, Muscular Dystrophy and MND on etiology, pattern of weakness and management.
Q21. Snehana as a Purvakarma procedure is primarily indicated to: (a) Increase Kapha Dosha (b) Achieve Mridutva of Doshas for easy elimination (c) Replace the need for Shodhana entirely (d) Cause Langhana Syllabus Mapping: Unit 8 — Panchakarma: Snehana, Swedana Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Revise definition, classification, indications, contraindications and complications of Snehana and Swedana.
Q22. Samyak Virechana Yoga is indicated by which of the following signs? (a) Excessive purgation with prolapse (b) Elimination of Doshas in proper sequence (Pittanta, then Kaphanta, then Vatanta) without complications (c) No bowel movement at all (d) Only mucus discharge Syllabus Mapping: Unit 8 — Panchakarma: Virechana — Samyak Yoga, Atiyoga, Ayoga Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Analysis Learning Hint: Revise the signs of Samyak, Atiyoga and Ayoga for Vamana, Virechana and Basti, and their management.
Q23. Basti is classically regarded as “Ardha Chikitsa” because it: (a) Cures only half the diseases (b) Is considered half of all Ayurvedic treatment due to its wide therapeutic scope (c) Is used in half doses only (d) Applies only to Pittaja disorders Syllabus Mapping: Unit 8 — Panchakarma: Basti Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise types, indications, contraindications and preparation of Basti along with the concept of “Ardha Chikitsa.”
Q24. Kshara Sutra is most commonly indicated in the management of: (a) Bhagandara (fistula-in-ano) (b) Pandu Roga (c) Jwara (d) Shirashoola Syllabus Mapping: Unit 12 — Shalya: Kshara Sutra Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Application Learning Hint: Revise preparation, indications, contraindications, method of application and complications of Kshara Sutra therapy.
Q25. According to the recommended immunization schedule, BCG vaccine is administered: (a) At 6 weeks (b) At birth (c) At 9 months (d) At 5 years Syllabus Mapping: Unit 9 — Kaumar Bhritya: Immunization Schedule Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise the complete National Immunization Schedule with age, vaccine and route.
Q26. Prasavutaar Vyadhi refers to disorders occurring in which period? (a) Antenatal period (b) Neonatal period (c) Adolescence (d) Old age Syllabus Mapping: Unit 9 — Kaumar Bhritya: Prasavutaar Vyadhi (Neonatal disorders) Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise classification of paediatric disorders — congenital, neonatal, malnutrition-related and infectious.
Q27. Garbhini Vyapad refers to: (a) Disorders during pregnancy (b) Disorders of the newborn (c) Disorders of lactation (d) Menstrual disorders Syllabus Mapping: Unit 10 — Prasuti Tantra: Garbha Vigyana, Garbhini Vyapad Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise Garbhini Vyapad, Prasav Vyapad and Sootika Vyapad with their Ayurvedic and modern correlates.
Q28. Which of the following is a barrier method of contraception? (a) Combined oral contraceptive pill (b) Condom (c) Depo-Provera injection (d) Copper-T IUD Syllabus Mapping: Unit 10 — Birth control methods Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise classification of birth control methods — barrier, hormonal, IUD and permanent — with mechanism and side effects.
Q29. Timira as described under Shalakya Tantra most closely corresponds to which modern condition affecting vision? (a) Progressive diminution of vision / cataract-related changes (b) Otitis media (c) Sinusitis (d) Dental caries Syllabus Mapping: Unit 11 — Shalakya Tantra: Netra Roga Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Revise common Netra Rogas (Timira, Linganasha, Abhishyanda) with modern correlation and management.
Q30. Agnikarma is best described as: (a) A purely surgical excision method (b) A para-surgical thermal cauterization procedure (c) A type of Basti (d) A dietary regimen Syllabus Mapping: Unit 12 — Shalya: Agni Karma Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Revise the instruments, indications, contraindications and complications of Agnikarma.
Q31. A 30-year-old male presents with recurrent alternate-day fever with rigor, followed by profuse sweating and symptom-free intervals. Which classical Jwara type and corresponding modern diagnosis best fits this presentation? (a) Santata Jwara / Typhoid (b) Anyedyushka Jwara / Malaria (Vivax pattern) (c) Chaturthaka Jwara / Falciparum malaria (d) Satata Jwara / Dengue Syllabus Mapping: Unit 8 — Kaya Chikitsa: Jwara types and management Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Clinical Decision-Making Learning Hint: Correlate periodicity patterns of Jwara with modern febrile illnesses for accurate clinical reasoning.
Q32. A 45-year-old farmer presents with a history of snake bite 2 hours ago, with ptosis, dysphagia and progressive weakness. What is the priority management approach combining Ayurvedic first-aid principles and modern emergency care? (a) Wait and observe without intervention (b) Immobilize limb, avoid tourniquet/incision, transport urgently for antivenom, with Ayurvedic Agada Tantra measures as adjuncts only (c) Apply tight tourniquet and incise the bite site (d) Give oral purgatives immediately Syllabus Mapping: Unit 5 — Agadtantra: Snake bite management Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Clinical Decision-Making Learning Hint: Revise first-aid principles, fatal dose/period concepts, and emergency referral protocol for Jangama Visha (snake bite).
Q33. A 6-month-old infant presents with delayed milestones, not yet able to sit with support. Which milestone assessment framework should the Medical Officer apply? (a) Garbha Vridhi Vikas Kram only (b) Standard infancy milestone chart correlated with Ayurvedic Sanskara-based developmental concepts (c) Adult Prakriti assessment (d) Ritucharya chart Syllabus Mapping: Unit 9 — Kaumar Bhritya: Milestone development, Sanskaras Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Application Learning Hint: Revise normal milestone ages for gross motor, fine motor, language and social development in infancy.
Q34. A woman in her third trimester presents with reduced fetal movements, edema and elevated blood pressure. As per Prasuti Tantra and modern obstetrics, this presentation should be classified under: (a) Sootika Vyapad (b) Garbhini Vyapad (pre-eclampsia correlate) (c) Yoni Vyapad (d) Aratva Vyapad Syllabus Mapping: Unit 10 — Prasuti Tantra: Garbhini Vyapad Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Clinical Decision-Making Learning Hint: Revise Garbhini Vyapad classification and correlate danger signs of pregnancy needing urgent referral.
Q35. A patient undergoing Virechana Karma passes stool 25 times with excessive griping pain, exhaustion and mild rectal prolapse. This represents: (a) Ayoga (b) Samyak Yoga (c) Atiyoga requiring immediate Sangrahi Chikitsa (d) Normal expected outcome Syllabus Mapping: Unit 8 — Panchakarma: Virechana complications and management Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Clinical Decision-Making Learning Hint: Revise the management protocol for Atiyoga of Virechana including Sangrahi and supportive measures.
Q36. (Assertion–Reason) Assertion (A): Basti Karma is contraindicated in a patient with active severe diarrhea. Reason (R): Basti further aggravates Vata and can worsen dehydration and mucosal irritation in an already compromised gut. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A (c) A is true, R is false (d) A is false, R is true Syllabus Mapping: Unit 8 — Panchakarma: Basti contraindications Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Analysis Learning Hint: Revise the general and specific contraindications (Pariharya Vishaya) for Panchakarma procedures.
Q37. A 50-year-old patient presents with a painless swelling in the breast, hard, fixed, with peau d’orange skin change. Correlating with Arbuda described in Shalya Tantra, the most appropriate next step is: (a) Local Lepa application only (b) Reassure and discharge (c) Urgent referral for biopsy/oncological workup while documenting under Arbuda-Granthi differentiation (d) Kshara Sutra application Syllabus Mapping: Unit 12 — Shalya: Arbuda (Tumours), diseases of the breast Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Clinical Decision-Making Learning Hint: Revise differentiation of Granthi vs Arbuda and red-flag features requiring urgent surgical/oncology referral.
Q38. A patient presents with recurrent perianal discharge, pain and an external opening near the anal verge with a positive probe tract. Best correlated Ayurvedic diagnosis and first-line management: (a) Arsha; Basti therapy (b) Bhagandara; Kshara Sutra therapy (c) Parikartika; Sitz bath only (d) Guda Bhramsha; manual reduction Syllabus Mapping: Unit 12 — Shalya: Fissure, Fistula, Piles; Kshara Sutra Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Application Learning Hint: Revise etiopathogenesis and management protocols for Arsha, Bhagandara and Parikartika.
Q39. A patient with chronic Prameha (correlating with Diabetes Mellitus) presents with polyuria, polydipsia and non-healing foot ulcer. The Medical Officer’s approach should prioritize: (a) Only Ayurvedic Rasayana with no monitoring (b) Blood sugar assessment, wound care, dietary regulation (Pathya-Apathya) and referral if needed (c) Immediate Panchakarma without glycemic control (d) Ignore ulcer, treat only thirst Syllabus Mapping: Unit 8 — Kaya Chikitsa: Prameha and endocrine disorders (Pancreas) Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Clinical Decision-Making Learning Hint: Revise Prameha classification, complications and integrated Ayurveda-modern management approach.
Q40. (Assertion–Reason) Assertion (A): In a suspected case of Dushivisha, symptoms may appear after a long latent period following exposure. Reason (R): Dushivisha loses its full potency but remains dormant in the body until aggravated by provoking factors such as heat, exertion or specific diet. (a) Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A (b) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A (c) A is true, R is false (d) A is false, R is true Syllabus Mapping: Unit 5 — Agadtantra: Dushivisha Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Analysis Learning Hint: Revise the pathogenesis, clinical presentation and management principles of Dushivisha.
SECTION C — Short Notes / Descriptive Questions (10 × 5 = 50 Marks)
(Attempt in approximately 150–200 words each)
Q41. Write a short note on the contributions of major commentators of classical Ayurvedic Samhitas. Marks: 5 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 1 — Commentators of classical Samhitas Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: List key commentators (e.g., Chakrapani, Dalhana, Arunadatta) with the texts they commented on.
Q42. Describe the Srotomoola and clinical significance of Annavaha Srotas. Marks: 5 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 2 — Rachna Sharir: Srotas Sharir Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Revise root, path, function and Dushti Lakshanas of Annavaha Srotas with modern correlation to the GI tract.
Q43. Explain the concept of Ashraya-Ashrayi Bhava between Dosha and Dhatu. Marks: 5 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 3 — Kriya Sharir: Ashraya-Ashrayi Bhava Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Revise the interdependent relationship between Doshas and Dhatus and its clinical relevance in disease manifestation.
Q44. Discuss the classification and clinical application of Rasa, Guna, Virya and Prabhava in Dravyaguna Vigyan. Marks: 5 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 4 — Dravyaguna Vigyan Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Use classical examples of drugs where Prabhava overrides Rasa-Guna-Virya-based action prediction.
Q45. Describe the Sadvritta and Achara Rasayana principles for promotion of positive health. Marks: 5 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 6 — Swasthavritta: Sadvritta and Achara Rasayana Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: List behavioral, ethical and social conduct guidelines under Sadvritta and their preventive health value.
Q46. Explain the concept and classification of Vyadhi Kshamatva with its clinical importance. Marks: 5 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 7 — Rog Vigyan: Vyadhi Kshamatva Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Correlate Vyadhi Kshamatva with the modern concept of immunity and its role in disease resistance/susceptibility.
Q47. Discuss the etiopathogenesis and Ayurvedic-modern management of Vata Vyadhi. Marks: 5 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 8 — Kaya Chikitsa: Vata Vyadhi Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Analysis Learning Hint: Revise Nidana, Samprapti, classification and both Shamana/Shodhana-based management of Vata Vyadhi.
Q48. Write a short note on the National Immunization Schedule and its importance in preventive Kaumar Bhritya practice. Marks: 5 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 9 — Kaumar Bhritya: Immunization Schedule Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Recall Learning Hint: Tabulate age-wise vaccines, doses and route as per the schedule.
Q49. Describe the clinical features and management of Netra Roga “Abhishyanda” (conjunctivitis correlate) under Shalakya Tantra. Marks: 5 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 11 — Shalakya Tantra: Netra Roga Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Revise types of Abhishyanda, symptoms, local and systemic management, and modern correlation with conjunctivitis.
Q50. Explain the Trividha Karma (Purva, Pradhana, Paschat Karma) of Panchakarma with their significance. Marks: 5 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 8 — Panchakarma: Trividha Karma Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand Learning Hint: Revise the sequence and rationale of Purvakarma, Pradhanakarma and Paschatkarma for safe and effective Shodhana.
Q51. A 35-year-old woman presents with intermittent high-grade fever with chills for 5 days, associated with headache and generalized body ache. As a Medical Officer, discuss your approach to history-taking, examination, relevant investigations, classification as per Jwara Nidana, differential diagnosis and stepwise Ayurvedic-modern management, including red flags necessitating referral. Marks: 10 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 8 — Kaya Chikitsa: Jwara Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Clinical Decision-Making Learning Hint: Structure the answer as history → examination → investigations (CBC, peripheral smear, widal) → Jwara classification → management → red flags/referral.
Q52. A term neonate develops jaundice, poor feeding and lethargy on day 3 of life. Discuss the possible Ayurvedic classification (Prasavutaar Vyadhi), differential diagnosis, assessment and initial management/referral protocol expected of a Medical Officer at a primary health facility. Marks: 10 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 9 — Kaumar Bhritya: Prasavutaar Vyadhi (Neonatal disorders) Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Clinical Decision-Making Learning Hint: Revise causes of neonatal jaundice, danger signs, and appropriate referral thresholds for a Medical Officer.
Q53. A pregnant woman at 8 months of gestation presents with severe headache, blurred vision and swelling of feet. Discuss Garbhini Vyapad correlation, immediate assessment, danger signs, and emergency management/referral pathway. Marks: 10 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 10 — Prasuti Tantra: Garbhini Vyapad Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Clinical Decision-Making Learning Hint: Revise danger signs of pregnancy and the emergency obstetric referral chain from a primary care setting.
Q54. A 40-year-old male presents with chronic constipation, hard stools and bleeding per rectum on defecation with a visible perianal mass. Discuss differentiation between Arsha and Bhagandara, relevant examination findings, and Kshara Sutra-based management plan including pre- and post-procedure care. Marks: 10 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 12 — Shalya: Piles, Fistula, Kshara Sutra Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Clinical Decision-Making Learning Hint: Revise clinical differentiation, grading of Arsha, and stepwise Kshara Sutra protocol with complication management.
Q55. A farmer is brought to the primary health centre 30 minutes after an unidentified snake bite, with local swelling and early neurotoxic signs (ptosis). As Medical Officer, outline your immediate assessment, first-aid principles as per Agadtantra, contraindicated practices, and referral protocol. Marks: 10 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 5 — Agadtantra: Jangama Visha management Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Clinical Decision-Making Learning Hint: Revise dos and don’ts of snake bite first aid, fatal period concept, and urgent transport/referral protocol.
Q56. A patient undergoing planned Virechana Karma is being prepared with Snehana and Swedana as Purvakarma. Describe the pre-procedure assessment (Koshta and Agni Pariksha), stepwise Purvakarma protocol, signs to monitor during Pradhana Karma, and management of possible complications (Ayoga/Atiyoga). Marks: 10 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 8 — Panchakarma: Snehana, Swedana, Virechana Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Clinical Decision-Making Learning Hint: Revise the complete Panchakarma protocol sequence with monitoring parameters and complication management at each stage.
Integrated across Units 1, 7, 8, 12 (classical text-based framing)
✓
2. Subject-Wise Distribution
Subject/Unit
Number of Questions
Ayurveda Itihasa & Padarath Vigyan
4
Rachna Sharir
3
Kriya Sharir
4
Dravyaguna Vigyan
2
Agadtantra
5
Swasthavritta
4
Rog-Vigyan Evam Vikriti Vigyan
4
Kaya Chikitsa & Panchkarma
14
Kaumar Bhritya
5
Prasuti Tantra Evam Stri-Rog
4
Shalakya Tantra
2
Shalya
5
Total
56
3. Difficulty Distribution
Difficulty
Number
Percentage
Easy
14
25%
Moderate
28
50%
Difficult
14
25%
4. Cognitive Distribution
Cognitive Level
Number
Percentage
Recall
11
~20%
Understanding
11
~20%
Application
17
~30%
Analysis
11
~20%
Clinical Decision-Making
6
~10%
(Approximate distribution across 56 questions; Section D case-based questions are weighted more heavily in marks to reflect their higher cognitive demand.)
5. Question Type Distribution
Question Type
Count
Single Best Answer MCQs
30
Clinical Scenario MCQs
8
Assertion–Reason
2
Short Notes/Descriptive
10
Case-Based Clinical Management
6
6. Validation Summary
Quality Parameter
Status
Complete Syllabus Coverage (all 13 units)
✓
Clinical Relevance
✓
Balanced Difficulty (25:50:25)
✓
Cognitive Coverage (Recall to Clinical Decision-Making)
JKPSC Scientific, Research & Professional Posts Recruitment Examination
Post: Scientific Officer, Narcotics (Forensic Science Laboratory, J&K) Subject/Discipline: Forensic Science Maximum Marks: 100 Time Allowed: 3 Hours
General Instructions
This paper is divided into four sections — A, B, C and D. All sections are compulsory unless otherwise stated.
Section A contains Objective Questions (MCQ / Assertion–Reason / Match the Following) to be answered in the space/OMR sheet provided.
Section B contains Short Answer Questions. Answers should not exceed 150 words each.
Section C contains Analytical, Numerical and Technical Questions. Show all working for numerical questions.
Section D contains Long Answer, Case-Study and Professional Application Questions. Answers should be well structured, with headings/sub-headings where appropriate.
Marks for each question are indicated against it.
Use of calculators is permitted only for Section C numerical questions unless stated otherwise.
A1. The term “Forensic” is derived from the Latin word forensis, which means: (a) Crime (b) Law (c) Forum/Public Debate (d) Evidence Marks: 1 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 1 – Definition of Forensic Science | Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Remember | Competency: Subject Knowledge Learning Hint: Revise the etymology and formal definition of forensic science.
A2. Which of the following is NOT generally recognized as a branch of Forensic Science under the syllabus scope? (a) Forensic Ballistics (b) Forensic Toxicology (c) Forensic Odontology (d) Forensic Astronomy Marks: 1 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 1 – Branches of Forensic Science | Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Remember | Competency: Subject Knowledge Learning Hint: Revise the standard list of forensic science branches and their scope.
A3. Assertion (A): Forensic Science in India developed significantly after the establishment of the first Forensic Science Laboratory. Reason (R): Forensic Science Laboratories provide scientific support to investigation agencies. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A (c) A is true, R is false (d) A is false, R is true Marks: 1 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 1 – Development of Forensic Science in India | Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand | Competency: Conceptual Understanding Learning Hint: Revise the historical milestones in the development of forensic science infrastructure in India.
A4. Match the following branches of Forensic Science with their primary area of study: Column I: (i) Forensic Toxicology (ii) Forensic Ballistics (iii) Forensic Odontology (iv) Forensic Serology Column II: (P) Firearms & Ammunition (Q) Poisons & Drugs (R) Blood & Body Fluids (S) Teeth & Bite Marks (a) i-Q, ii-P, iii-S, iv-R (b) i-P, ii-Q, iii-R, iv-S (c) i-R, ii-S, iii-P, iv-Q (d) i-Q, ii-S, iii-P, iv-R Marks: 1 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 1 – Scope and Branches of Forensic Science | Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand | Competency: Conceptual Understanding Learning Hint: Revise the scope and subject matter covered under each branch of forensic science.
A5. A crime scene that is enclosed within a building or structure is classified as a/an: (a) Outdoor crime scene (b) Indoor crime scene (c) Secondary crime scene (d) Microscopic crime scene Marks: 1 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 2 – Classification of Crime Scene | Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Remember | Competency: Subject Knowledge Learning Hint: Revise the classification criteria for indoor, outdoor, primary, secondary, macroscopic and microscopic crime scenes.
A6. The place where a crime actually occurred is termed the: (a) Secondary crime scene (b) Primary crime scene (c) Associative scene (d) Transfer scene Marks: 1 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 2 – Classification of Crime Scene | Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Remember | Competency: Subject Knowledge Learning Hint: Revise the distinction between primary and secondary crime scenes with examples.
A7. Trace evidence such as hair, fibres and gunshot residue that require microscopic examination fall under the category of: (a) Macroscopic crime scene evidence (b) Microscopic crime scene evidence (c) Testimonial evidence (d) Documentary evidence Marks: 1 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 2 – Macroscopic & Microscopic Crime Scenes | Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand | Competency: Conceptual Understanding Learning Hint: Revise the distinction between macroscopic and microscopic crime scene evidence.
A8. Which of the following best defines “Physical Evidence” in a forensic context? (a) Only oral testimony of witnesses (b) Any tangible object that establishes a link between crime, victim and criminal (c) Only documents recovered from the scene (d) Only biological fluids found at the scene Marks: 1 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 2 – Definition of Physical Evidence | Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Understand | Competency: Subject Knowledge Learning Hint: Revise the definition, classification and evidentiary value of physical evidence.
A9. The unbroken chronological record of seizure, custody, control, transfer, and disposition of physical evidence is known as: (a) Crime scene reconstruction (b) Chain of custody (c) Evidence linkage (d) Forensic audit Marks: 1 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 2 – Chain of Custody | Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Remember | Competency: Subject Knowledge Learning Hint: Revise the concept, purpose and legal significance of chain of custody documentation.
A10. In cases of fire and arson, which evidence is of primary significance to establish the use of an accelerant? (a) Fingerprints on furniture (b) Presence of ignitable liquid residue patterns (c) Blood spatter pattern (d) Handwriting on a note Marks: 1 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 2 – Crime Scene relating to Fire and Arson | Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Apply | Competency: Technical Application Learning Hint: Revise crime scene indicators and evidence significant to fire and arson investigations.
A11. In mass disaster investigation, the process by which recovered human remains are matched to individual identities is central to: (a) Crime scene reconstruction only (b) Victim identification (c) Chain of custody only (d) Ballistic comparison Marks: 1 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 2 – Crime Scene relating to Mass Disaster | Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand | Competency: Subject Knowledge Learning Hint: Revise the special considerations and procedures applicable to mass disaster crime scenes.
A12. Which of the following is an essential principle while packaging biological evidence such as bloodstained material? (a) Airtight plastic packaging to preserve moisture (b) Breathable paper packaging to prevent microbial degradation (c) No packaging is required for biological evidence (d) Packaging in metal containers only Marks: 1 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 2 – Collection, Preservation, Packaging of Material | Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Apply | Competency: Technical Application Learning Hint: Revise appropriate collection, preservation and packaging protocols for different evidence types.
A13. “Crime Scene Reconstruction” primarily involves: (a) Randomly rearranging objects at the scene (b) Using physical evidence and scientific analysis to establish the sequence of events (c) Photographing the scene only (d) Interviewing the accused exclusively Marks: 1 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 2 – Reconstruction of Crime Scene | Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand | Competency: Conceptual Understanding Learning Hint: Revise the principles, methods and evidentiary basis of crime scene reconstruction.
A14. Which of the following tools would be MOST relevant during a systematic crime scene search? (a) Grid/strip search pattern equipment and evidence markers (b) Only a notebook and pen (c) Only a camera without measuring tools (d) None of the above Marks: 1 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 2 – Tools and Techniques in Crime Scene Search | Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Understand | Competency: Technical Application Learning Hint: Revise standard crime scene search patterns and the tools/techniques used at the scene.
A15. Ethical conduct at a crime scene primarily requires the investigator to: (a) Alter evidence to strengthen the prosecution’s case (b) Maintain objectivity, avoid contamination, and ensure accurate documentation (c) Share scene details with unauthorized persons (d) Skip documentation to save time Marks: 1 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 2 – Significance and Ethics of Crime Scene | Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Understand | Competency: Professional Judgment Learning Hint: Revise ethical obligations and professional conduct expected at a crime scene.
A16. Which measure of central tendency is defined as the value that occurs most frequently in a data set? (a) Mean (b) Median (c) Mode (d) Standard Deviation Marks: 1 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 3 – Mean, Median, Mode | Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Remember | Competency: Subject Knowledge Learning Hint: Revise the definitions and calculation methods of mean, median and mode.
A17. Probability of an event is best defined as: (a) The certainty of an event occurring (b) The ratio of favourable outcomes to total possible outcomes (c) The average value of a data set (d) The variability of a data set Marks: 1 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 3 – Basic Principles of Statistics – Probability | Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Remember | Competency: Subject Knowledge Learning Hint: Revise the fundamental definition and axioms of probability.
A18. The Chi-square test is primarily used to: (a) Compare two population means (b) Test the association/independence between categorical variables or goodness of fit (c) Measure central tendency (d) Measure dispersion only Marks: 1 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 3 – Chi Square Test | Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand | Competency: Subject Knowledge Learning Hint: Revise the purpose, assumptions and applications of the Chi-square test.
A19. The F-Test is primarily employed to compare: (a) Two sample means directly (b) The variances of two populations/samples (c) Two medians (d) Two modes Marks: 1 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 3 – F-Test | Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand | Competency: Subject Knowledge Learning Hint: Revise the purpose, assumptions and application of the F-test in comparing variances.
A20. Which of the following statements about the Median is correct? (a) It is always equal to the Mean (b) It is the middle value of an ordered data set (c) It is the most frequently occurring value (d) It cannot be calculated for an odd number of observations Marks: 1 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 3 – Mean, Median, Mode | Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Understand | Competency: Subject Knowledge Learning Hint: Revise the method of calculating the median for odd and even numbered data sets.
SECTION B — Short Answer Questions (10 × 3 = 30 Marks)
B1. Explain the scope of Forensic Science and briefly discuss any three of its branches. Marks: 3 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 1 – Scope and Branches of Forensic Science | Difficulty: Easy | Cognitive Level: Understand | Competency: Subject Knowledge Learning Hint: Revise the definition, scope and major branches of forensic science with their functions.
B2. Discuss the key milestones in the development of Forensic Science in India. Marks: 3 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 1 – Development of Forensic Science in India | Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand | Competency: Subject Knowledge Learning Hint: Revise the historical development and institutional growth of forensic science in India.
B3. Differentiate between a Primary Crime Scene and a Secondary Crime Scene with suitable examples. Marks: 3 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 2 – Classification of Crime Scene | Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Analyse | Competency: Analytical Ability Learning Hint: Revise classification of crime scenes and illustrative examples of each category.
B4. Explain the significance and evidentiary value of physical evidence in linking the crime scene, victim and criminal. Marks: 3 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 2 – Physical Evidence – Significance and Value | Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand | Competency: Conceptual Understanding Learning Hint: Revise the concept of evidentiary linkage (Locard’s principle context) as covered under physical evidence.
B5. Discuss the precautions to be taken during the collection and preservation of physical evidence at a crime scene. Marks: 3 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 2 – Collection, Preservation, Packaging of Material | Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Apply | Competency: Technical Application Learning Hint: Revise standard protocols for collection, preservation and packaging of different evidence categories.
B6. Explain the importance of maintaining Chain of Custody and the safety measures required at the crime scene and in the laboratory. Marks: 3 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 2 – Chain of Custody and Safety Measures | Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand | Competency: Professional Judgment Learning Hint: Revise chain of custody documentation requirements and laboratory/scene safety protocols.
B7. Discuss the special considerations involved in investigating a crime scene relating to a mass disaster. Marks: 3 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 2 – Crime Scene relating to Mass Disaster | Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Analyse | Competency: Analytical Ability Learning Hint: Revise the challenges, procedures and evidence handling specific to mass disaster scenes.
B8. Explain how a forensic investigator distinguishes a scene of homicide from a scene of suicide based on scene indicators. Marks: 3 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 2 – Crime Scene relating to Homicide, Suicide, Murder | Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Analyse | Competency: Analytical Ability Learning Hint: Revise distinguishing scene indicators associated with homicide, suicide and murder investigations.
B9. Explain the concept of probability and its relevance to forensic data interpretation. Marks: 3 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 3 – Probability | Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Understand | Competency: Research Aptitude Learning Hint: Revise the basic principles of probability and its role in interpreting forensic findings.
B10. Differentiate between Mean, Median and Mode as measures of central tendency, indicating situations where each is most appropriately used. Marks: 3 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 3 – Mean, Median, Mode | Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Analyse | Competency: Analytical Ability Learning Hint: Revise the definitions, formulae and comparative applicability of mean, median and mode.
C1. A crime scene investigator arrives at an indoor scene involving a suspected gas explosion. Outline, in a logical sequence, the tools, techniques and search strategy that should be employed to systematically process this scene while preserving physical evidence. Marks: 5 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 2 – Tools and Techniques in Crime Scene Search; Crime Scene relating to Gas Explosion | Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Apply | Competency: Technical Application Learning Hint: Revise systematic crime scene search techniques and their application to explosion/fire scenes.
C2. During the investigation of a case, evidence collected from the scene was found to have a break in its documented chain of custody before reaching the laboratory. Analyse the implications of this lapse and suggest the corrective safety and documentation measures that should be institutionalized to prevent recurrence. Marks: 5 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 2 – Chain of Custody and Safety Measures | Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Analyse | Competency: Problem Solving Learning Hint: Revise chain-of-custody protocols, documentation standards and consequences of procedural lapses.
C3. In a data set of examination scores: 12, 15, 18, 15, 20, 15, 22, 18, calculate the Mean, Median and Mode. Marks: 5 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 3 – Mean, Median, Mode | Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Apply | Competency: Numerical Skills Learning Hint: Revise the step-by-step calculation procedures for mean, median and mode of a given data set.
C4. A bag contains 5 red balls, 3 blue balls and 2 green balls. Calculate the probability of drawing (i) a red ball, and (ii) either a blue or a green ball, in a single draw. Marks: 5 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 3 – Probability | Difficulty: Moderate | Cognitive Level: Apply | Competency: Numerical Skills Learning Hint: Revise the classical definition of probability and rules for computing probability of combined events.
C5. Given observed and expected frequencies for a categorical data set, describe the step-by-step procedure to compute the Chi-square statistic and explain how the result would be interpreted against a critical value at a given significance level. Marks: 5 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 3 – Chi Square Test | Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Apply | Competency: Numerical Skills Learning Hint: Revise the Chi-square formula, degrees of freedom determination and interpretation of results.
C6. Two independent samples yield different variances. Describe the procedure to apply the F-Test to determine whether the difference in variances is statistically significant, and explain how the computed F-value would be interpreted. Marks: 5 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 3 – F-Test | Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Evaluate | Competency: Numerical Skills Learning Hint: Revise the F-test formula, assumptions, degrees of freedom and interpretation against critical F-values.
SECTION D — Long Answer / Research / Case Study / Professional Application Questions (2 × 10 = 20 Marks)
D1. Critically examine the definition, principles and scope of Forensic Science, and discuss how its various branches integrate to support criminal investigation. Support your answer with a discussion on the historical development of Forensic Science in India. Marks: 10 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 1 – Introduction, Definition, Principles, Scope, Branches, Development of Forensic Science in India | Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Evaluate | Competency: Critical Thinking Learning Hint: Revise the complete conceptual framework of forensic science — definition, principles, scope, branches — along with its developmental history in India.
D2. You are the first Scientific Officer to reach the scene of a suspected murder that occurred indoors, with signs suggesting possible mass-casualty implications due to a fire that broke out subsequently. Design a comprehensive crime scene management plan covering scene classification, physical evidence identification, search strategy, collection and packaging, chain of custody, safety measures, and scene reconstruction, justifying each step. Marks: 10 | Syllabus Mapping: Unit 2 – Crime Scene Classification, Physical Evidence, Tools & Techniques, Collection/Preservation/Packaging, Reconstruction, Chain of Custody, Safety Measures, Crime Scene relating to Fire and Homicide/Mass Disaster | Difficulty: Difficult | Cognitive Level: Create/Design | Competency: Professional Judgment Learning Hint: Revise integrated crime scene management principles spanning classification, evidence handling, safety, and reconstruction for complex/composite scenes.
EXAM BLUEPRINT
1. Syllabus Coverage Matrix
Syllabus Unit
Questions
Coverage
Unit 1: Introduction, Definition, Principles, Scope & Branches of Forensic Science; Development in India
A1–A4, B1–B2, D1 (7)
✓ Covered
Unit 2: Crime Scene Investigation & Physical Evidence